MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is NOT a force influencing the role of nurses?
a. Lack of patient access to healthcare information
b. Changing demographics of patient populations
c. Scientific advances, especially in the areas of genetics and genomics
d. New care technologies
2. Which of the following is an unintentional tort?
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. Negligence
d. False imprisonment
3. Which organization represents all RN’s in the United States
a. AACN
b. ANA
c. STTI
d. INC
4. When a nurse approaches management to implement a change supported by EBP to
improve patient care, the nurse is acting as a
a. Patient advocate
b. Collaborator
c. Manager
d. Change Agent
5. Which nursing organization represents all nursing programs and is the oldest nursing
accrediting commission
a. NLN
b. AORN
c. AACN
d. N-OADN
6. What was the first formal nursing education program in the United States
a. Associates degree
b. Baccalaureate degree
c. Diploma degree
d. Accelerated Baccalaureate degree
7. A Not-for-profit organization
a. Does not have to show a profit
b. Is a tax designation
c. Does not pay employees
d. Does contribute to retirement funds
8. The following is defined as a course of action that affects a large number of people and is stimulated by the specific need to achieve certain outcomes
a. Policy
b. Healthcare
c. Medicaid
d. Law
9. Standardized code or guide to behavior that deals with the rightness and wrongness of
behavior
a. Moral
b. Culture
c. Religion
d. Ethics
10. There are a number of caring theories in nursing. Which of these caring theories is based on 10 carative factors, also known as caritas processes?
a. Leninger’s Theory of culture care diversity and universality
b. Paterson & Zderad’s Humanistic nursing theory
c. Watson’s Theory of human caring
d. Boykin & Schoenhofer’s Nursing as caring theory
11. Which of the following illustrates an application of Nightingale’s theory?
a. Changing soiled bed linens
b. Expecting nurses to develop skill and understanding of patient care over time
through a combination of education and experience
c. Developing a relationship with a patient and awareness of the patient’s feelings in
an effort to promote healing
d. Realizing that patients must feel safe before their satisfaction needs can be met
12. Which of the following illustrates an application of Benner’s theory of novice to expert?
a. Changing soiled bed linens
b. Expecting nurses to develop skill and understanding of patient care over time
through a combination of education and experience
c. Developing a relationship with a patient and awareness of the patient’s feelings in
an effort to promote healing
d. Realizing that patients must feel safe before their satisfaction needs can be met
13. Which of the following illustrates an application of Watson’s theory of caring?
a. Changing soiled bed linens
b. Expecting nurses to develop skill and understanding of patient care over time
through a combination of education and experience
c. Developing a relationship with a patient and awareness of the patient’s feelings in
an effort to promote healing
d. Realizing that patients must feel safe before their satisfaction needs can be met
14. Which of the following illustrates an application of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in nursing?
a. Changing soiled bed linens
b. Expecting nurses to develop skill and understanding of patient care over time through a combination of education and experience
c. Developing a relationship with a patient and awareness of the patient’s feelings in an effort to promote healing
d. Realizing that patients must feel safe before their satisfaction needs can be met
15. Grand nursing theories are
a. Complex and broad in scope and may incorporate several other theories
b. Narrow and specific in scope, designed to be implemented in a particular practice
area
c. Theories of other professions that are useful in nursing
d. Not applicable to nursing practice
16. Borrowed theories are
a. Complex and broad in scope and may incorporate several other theories
b. Narrow and specific in scope, designed to be implemented in a particular practice
area
c. Theories from other professions that are useful in nursing
d. Not applicable to nursing practice
17. Which of the following is an example of a practice theory?
a. Beck’s theory of postpartum depression
b. King’s open systems theory
c. Roy’s adaptation theory
d. Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs
18. The definition of autonomy in nursing is:
a. The right to self-determination
b. Concern for the welfare and well-being of others
c. Respect for the inherent worth and uniqueness of individuals and populations
d. Acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics and accepted standards of practice
19. The nurse is presenting a session on healthy living to seniors at the public library in order to decrease their risk of chronic disease. This is known as
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
20. The nurse is working with victims of violent crime to help them to cope with what happened to them. This is an example of
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
21. The community has suffered a violent disaster and volunteer mental health nurses come to the town to strategize how to help the entire community recover and how to mitigate further damage to the overall mental health of the community. This is known as
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
22. The nurse knows that which of the following is NOT one of the Healthy People 2020 goals?
a. Consume a variety of nutrient-dense foods within and across the food groups, especially whole grains, fruits, vegetables, low-fat or fat-free milk or milk products, and lean meats and other protein sources.
b. Limit the intake of saturated and trans fats, cholesterol, added sugars, sodium (salt), and alcohol.
c. Limit fluid intake to 1600 mL daily.
d. Limit caloric intake to meet caloric needs.
23. When considering preparedness, the nurse knows that the Healthy People 2020 included all these EXCEPT:
a. access to health services
b. economic and social conditions
c. education of nurses
d. individual behaviors, lifestyles, and social interconnectedness
24. The website for information about Healthy People 2020 is
a. Healthy People 2020 https://www.
25. Global health concerns are not limited to infectious diseases. Non-communicable diseases, especially “lifestyle” conditions, are among the leading causes of disability worldwide. According to Healthy People 2020, these conditions include all EXCEPT:
a. diabetes and obesity
b. mental illness
c. injuries
d. birth defects
26. According to Healthy People 2020, more than any other developmental period, early and middle childhood sets the stage for each of the following EXCEPT:
a. health literacy
b. self-discipline
c. contraceptive education
d. eating habits
27. The leading cause of death from ages 1 to 44 is
a. substance abuse
b. injury
c. chronic disease
d. diabetes
28. Injury and violence prevention can reduce
a. poor mental health
b. high medical costs
c. lost productivity
d. all of the above
29. Examples of social determinants of health include all EXCEPT:
a. Housing and community design
b. Access to mass media and emerging technologies (e.g., cell phones, the Internet, and social media)
c. Culture
d. Exposure to crime, violence, and social disorder (e.g., presence of trash and lack of cooperation in a community)
30. What is the study of genes and DNA in a person or another living organism?
a. genomics
b. genetics
c. geriatrics
d. gestation
31. When a disease affects a greater number people than is usual for the locality or one that spreads to areas not usually associated with the disease, and becomes world-wide it is known as
a. surge
b. an epidemic
c. a pandemic
d. a systemic
32. A sudden calamitous event bringing great damage, loss, or destruction is known as
a. disaster
b. an epidemic
c. a surge
d. a pandemic
33. Common strategies for collecting qualitative data in a healthcare setting are:
a. Patient and staff satisfaction surveys
b. Focus group discussions
c. Independent observations
d. All of the above
34. Which of the following is a reason why utilizing data for quality improvement is important?
a. Data reduces the placement of effective solutions
b. Data does not allow for monitoring of procedural changes to ensure that improvements are sustained.
c. Data establishes a baseline
d. Data cannot indicate whether changes lead to improvements
35. Which of the following best describes performance measures?
a. They are derived from practice guidelines and are designed to measure systems of care
b. They are a process by which an organization monitors important aspects of its programs, systems, and processes.
c. They are forward-looking processes used to set goals and regularly check progress toward achieving those goals.
d. All of the above
36. Good performance measures incorporate which of the following?
a. Relevance
b. Accuracy
c. Feasibility
d. All of the above
37. Which of the following is the best definition of evidence based practice in nursing?
a. A scientific process that validates and refines existing knowledge and generates new knowledge that directly and indirectly influences nursing practice.
b. An integration of the best evidence available, nursing expertise, and the values of the individuals, families, and communities who are served.
c. A continuous interactive process involving explicit, conscientious, and judicious consideration of the best literature available to direct nursing care.
d. Basing one’s practice on the current trends in nursing.
38. Which of the following is the best definition of nursing research?
a. A scientific process that validates and refines existing knowledge and generates new knowledge that directly and indirectly influences nursing practice.
b. An integration of the best evidence available, nursing expertise, and the values of the individuals, families, and communities who are served.
c. A continuous interactive process involving explicit, conscientious, and judicious consideration of the best literature available to direct nursing care.
d. Basing one’s practice on the current trends in nursing.
39. Which of the following is not a phase of the research process:
a. Stating the study problem
b. Reviewing the literature to develop a theoretical framework
c. Disseminating data
d. Analyzing data
40. Which of the following is NOT a way of acquiring knowledge in nursing?
a. Borrowing
b. Trial and Error
c. Research
d. Osmosis
41. Good performance measures are always relevant, measurable, accurate, and feasible. Which of the following definitions best describes a performance measure that is
measurable?
a. Based on a condition that occurs frequently and/or has a great impact on the patients at the facility.
b. Can be realistically and efficiently quantified with the facility’s finite resources.
c. Based on accepted guidelines or developed through formal group decisionmaking methods
d. Can be realistically improved given the capacity of the organization’s clinical services and patient population.
42. Good performance measures are always relevant, measurable, accurate, and feasible. Which of the following definitions best describes a performance measure that is feasible?
a. Based on a condition that occurs frequently and/or has a great impact on the patients at the facility.
b. Can be realistically and efficiently quantified with the facility’s finite resources.
c. Based on accepted guidelines or developed through formal group decision making methods
d. Can be realistically improved given the capacity of the organization’s clinical services and patient population.
43. When critiquing a literature review, it is important to analyze whether the researchers utilized current literature. The literature utilized should have been published within how many years of the manuscript’s acceptance for publication?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 12
d. 20
44. A research problem is considered to be significant if the knowledge generated in the study:
a. Influences nursing practice
b. Builds on previous research
c. Promotes theory testing and development
d. All of the above
45. Which of the following is an example of an environmental health risk?
a. Residing on a farm that utilizes pesticides
b. Failing to keep up-to-date on vaccinations
c. Being exposed to a child with chicken pox
d. Not washing one’s hands before eating
46. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended for women in good health?
a. 20
b. 40
c. 65
d. never
47. Which of the following cancer screenings are recommended for men over the age of 65?
a. Breast cancer testing
b. Renal cell carcinoma testing
c. Prostate cancer testing
d. Lymphoma testing
48. Which of the following is a reason why adults may need vaccines?
a. Some adults were never vaccinated as children
b. Newer vaccines were not available when some adults were children
c. Immunity can begin to fade over time
d. All of the above
49. Which of the following is an example of an individual intervention?
a. Social marketing
b. Policy development
c. Nicotine management
d. All of the above
50. Which of the following is NOT a lifestyle management recommendation for patients with diabetes?
a. Smoking reduction
b. Dietary interventions and weight control
c. Self-monitoring of glycemia
d. Structured education
51. Which of the following are critical to promoting high quality patient care?
a. Organizational and systems leadership
b. Quality improvement
c. Safety
d. All of the above
52. To be effective, nursing leaders must be able to practice at what level within the
healthcare system?
a. Macrosystem
b. Microsystem
c. Meso-system
d. National frameworks
53. The clinical microsystem includes which of the following?
a. National service frameworks
b. Whole patient journey
c. Inter microsystem work
d. Synthesis of individual, team, and patient
54. Which of the following best defines a process map?
a. How things are done now
b. An organization’s efficiency, the outcome of care, and level of patient satisfaction
c. A visual diagram of a sequence of events that result in a particular outcome
d. Systematic and continuous actions that lead to measurable improvement in health care services and the health status of targeted population groups
55. Which of the following best defines quality improvement?
a. How things are done now
b. An organization’s efficiency, the outcome of care, and level of patient satisfaction
c. A visual diagram of a sequence of events that result in a particular outcome
d. Systematic and continuous actions that lead to measurable improvement in health care services and the health status of targeted population groups
56. Which of the following best defines healthcare performance?
a. How things are done now
b. An organization’s efficiency, outcome of care, and level of patient satisfaction
c. A visual diagram of a sequence of events that result in a particular outcome
d. Systematic and continuous actions that lead to measurable improvement in health care services and the health status of targeted population groups
57. Which of the following is NOT a role of leadership in quality improvement?
a. Creating and sustaining a personal and organizational focus on the needs of internal and external customers
b. Demonstrates a need to revise the organizational mission, values, goals, and expectations
c. Integrates customer-oriented mission, values, goals, and expectations into all aspects of management
d. Sets the direction for QI by creating a strong patient focus
58. Which of the following describes the role of the data specialist in a quality improvement program?
a. Organizes and drives the ongoing work, measurement, and team
b. Collects and analyzes data, and uses quality improvement tools
c. Works regularly with those patients who care is directly affected by quality improvement efforts
d. Integrally involved in current processes, this individual is an essential member of the team because much of the innovative work involves designing new processes and streamlining old ones.
59. Which of the following best describes the FADE Model of quality improvement?
a. The six fundamental aspects of care create a system promoting high-quality disease and prevention management. This model achieves this by supporting productive interactions with patients, who take an active part in their care.
b. This model defines value by what a customer wants. It determines how value flows to the customer and ensures competency of the process by making it cost effective and time efficient.
c. This model focuses on three main questions that are designed to establish the organizational goal, establish measures, and select changes.
d. There are four steps to this model: Focus, Analyze, Develop, and Execute
60. Which of the following best describes the Six Sigma model of quality improvement?
a. The six fundamental aspects of care create a system promoting high-quality disease and prevention management. This model achieves this by supporting productive interactions with patients, who take an active part in their care.
b. This model focuses on three main questions that are designed to establish the organizational goal, establish measures, and select changes.
c. There are four steps to this model: Focus, Analyze, Develop, and Execute
